Q3. Psalm 22. My God, Why Have You Forsaken Me?
#2
Posted 20 October 2007 - 03:10 AM
When Jesus spoke the words of Psalm 22:1 he was having the same thoughts as the Psalmist when he wrote those words.
What was he seeking to express?
He was seeking to express to be comforted by the presence of His Father. He knew that which lie ahead was inevitable, He just wanted the presence of His Father as He went through.
What was he feeling?
He was feeling alone and forsaken.
How did God answer his plea?
God remain distant and silent.
#3
Posted 29 October 2007 - 04:18 PM
We take a stand at Calvary. The Cross is erected. Jesus, The God-man, our substitue, our Redeemer, hangs there. We look, and we receive assurance that truly He is bearing our curse, and drinking to the dregs our cup of wrath, and receiving into His inmost soul the sword of justice, and suffering the extremities of anguish as the penalty for our sins.
Here we have fullest proof that our Lord's sufferings were real; but they were not for Himself. They were all really substitutional. We have a real curse bearer, and we really suffer in Him But against all feeling, when all things were most adverse, faith still survives and retained hold of God. From desertion's lowest depth faith cried, " My God, My God"
Jesus foresaw His deep humiliation. He takes the place of a scorned reptile. He is considered scarcely worthy to be ranked on a level with the Human race. In after days the prophet sounded a similar note of degradation. He is despised and rejected of men, a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief, and we hid, as it were, our faces from Him. Let us gratefully remember that His low estate is our exaltation. He thus sinks that we may be uplifted.
#4
Posted 04 November 2007 - 12:44 PM
1) "1My God, my God, why have you forsaken me? Why are you so far from saving me, so far from the words of my groaning?"
Jesus said because we are probing here beyond the explicit teaching of scripture, when Jesus was on the cross bearing our sins, he may have felt spiritual separation from the holy God because of our sin he was bearing. He felt alone because he took our sin and guilt upon himself. He also felt that why his father is not helping him, even though he is the mighty Jesus, God wanted him to be able to feel what is like to be a human and have the sinful nature.
2) He was trying to express that the Lord's sufferings were real. He also wanted to express that God was real and merciful.
3) He was feeling lonely
4) 2O my God, I cry out by day, but you do not answer,
by night, and am not silent."
God remained silent.
#5
Posted 05 November 2007 - 12:59 AM
He was expressing that He, indeed was paying the price for our sins--all of them.
He was feeling great pain physically & spiritually--being so completely separated from the Father.
No answer, no rest. The work was being completed on the cross at great cost to Jesus.
#6
Posted 05 November 2007 - 10:53 AM
BECAUSE HE TOOK IT UPON HIMSELF TO DIE FOR OUR SINS.
HE WANTED HIS FATHER TO BE WITH HIM EVERY STEP OF THE WAY.
HE WAS FEELING ABANDONED.
GOD REMAINED SILENT.
#7
Posted 06 November 2007 - 12:48 AM
I think we see some of the humanity of Jesus as He spoke these words. Perhaps in his humanity He sensed a separation from the Father at this point as he alone, would become the supreme sacrificial lamb, who would bear the sin of the world.
What was he seeking to express? What was he feeling? How did God answer his plea?
Perhaps he was seeking to express the depth of his anguish that he felt. Yet at this point God chose to remain silent. Yet, it was shortly after Christ spoke that he died, the temple veil was torn in two, there was an earthquake, graves opened up, saints arose and the centurion was prompted to note that “Truly this was the Son of God.” (Matt. 27:51-54) Might this be a part of how God answered His plea so mankind could know the truth of Who He truly is?
#8
Posted 06 November 2007 - 10:27 AM
He was acknowledging to the Father that He knew that He was the perfect Lamb bearing our sin and that the true God can't look apon sin. He knew that the Father loved Him but had turned from Him in this moment of time when He took the sin of the world apon Him and suffered alone.
He was expressing His sorrow again in that He ws alone bearing our sin in Himself. He was seeking the will of the Father being the scape goat and the perfect lamb at the same time. He laid down His life willingly and was letting those closest to Him know that He would rise again.
God the Father answered His plea by recieving His Spirit and raising His body to new life from the dead three days later as He had planned from the beggining. He turn back to Him and answered Him by making Him Lord of Lords and King of Kings, Glory to God.
#9
Posted 06 November 2007 - 01:41 PM
A very powerful Psalm indeed! Jesus spoke these prophetic words as a fulfillment of God’s promise-by quoting the first verse of this Psalm He declared to those around Him that the rest of that Psalm was speaking of the cross (He declared it even if they did not understand)
What was Jesus seeking to express? Great question:
He expresses His plight, the feeling of: being surrounded and abused- mocked, insulted, shaking their heads, doubting His relationship with His Father. Jesus was surrounded by evil doers, by bulls, by lions (tearing their prey) by dogs and evil ones by wild oxen.
He expresses His absolute trust in the Father-praying for a rescue of resurrection proportions (5, 20-21) knowing that it will be done
He expresses His anguish due to the Father turning His face away (cf. Is 53:10) “My God My God why have You forsaken Me…” (Ps 22:1-2, 11,
He expresses the anguish of being made sin for us (2 Cor 5:21) “but I am a worm not a man”
He expresses the pain of the cross in very descriptive words: “…poured out like water…bones out of joint…heart turned to wax…strength dried up…pierced hands and feet…can feel all my bones (He is aware of each one- i.e. knows pain from every part of His anatomy)
He expresses His confidence that although forsaken because of being a sin offering-yet God has not abandoned His soul to the grave “…He has listened to My cry for help” (24)
He expresses the result of Him fulfilling His vow (25) i.e. His facing the cross, the result is God’s salvation being accomplished and proclaimed (see 26-31)
#10
Posted 06 November 2007 - 02:51 PM
When His precious blood flowed down Calvary's hill and Christ gave up the Ghost, it was then that the perfect sacrifice was made complete and He, along with all believers who repent of their sins, was redeemed. His reward was His resurrection to a new and incorruptible body, forever to assume His seat at the right hand of the Father.
#11
Posted 08 November 2007 - 09:51 AM
"1My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?
Why are you so far from saving me,
so far from the words of my groaning?
Why do you think Jesus spoke the words of Psalm 22:1?
Though we are probing here beyond the explicit teaching of scripture, when Jesus was on the cross bearing our sins, he may have felt spiritual separation from the holy God because of our sin he was bearing. He felt alone because he took our sin and guilt upon himself. I believe this is the reason Jesus spoke the words of Psalm 22.
What was he seeking to express? What was he feeling?
Being truly man, Christ felt a natural unwillingness to pass through such great sorrows, yet his zeal and love prevailed.
How did God answer his plea?
Doubled up with pain, I call to God
all the day long. No answer. Nothing.
I keep at it all night, tossing and turning. (Message 22:1-2)
#12
Posted 10 November 2007 - 06:58 AM
He was expressing grief and sorrow.
He was feeling the pain of being separated from God and the pain of death in his human body.
Though God had to turn away from the sin and guilt of man that was on Jesus, God heard his prayer and glorified his son and the son glorified the father.
#13
Posted 10 November 2007 - 08:28 PM
Psalm 22 speaks of David 's david own distress and the Lord's deliverance of him, it also prophetically describe in remarkable detail Jesus crucifixion and resurrection.
Jesus spoke the word of Psalm 22:1, because like the psalmist David, he expresses a painful sense of separation from God at a time of great trouble. He was expressing his emotional, spiritual and physical anguish.
He was feeling a sense of separation from God.
#14
Posted 11 November 2007 - 10:24 PM
In this Psalm there can be seen as a lament followed by hymn of praise. Some think it is the "Fith Gospel" "The Psalm of the Cross" Psalm 22 and Isaiah 53 together formed the core of Jesus' and they early church's understanding of the crucifixion. Spiritual seperation from a holy God because of our sin he was bearing.
Charlene
#15
Posted 12 November 2007 - 02:21 PM
Why do you think Jesus spoke the words of Psalm 22:1?
* Jesus came to fulfill the law and death was and still is the only thing that will fulfill the curse of the law of sin. He lived out His ministry prophetically and every work or thing He did concerning God's word could be linked with it. The Jews had learned to recognized this as well and it causes hatred in their hearts towards Him.
I do believe David understood what He was saying and writing, if he had not then he would not have mention in other Psalms about his coming Savior or Messiah. The Patriarchs in the Old Testament that spoke of the future had to of gotten revelation of Jesus or they would not be seated with Him today as we know is spoken of in the New. This witnesses to the fact in God's word that there is a past, a present and a future. Just as He is the same yesterday, today and forever. God's people have always seen prophetically and will until He comes back in all His glory. God's word is a living and if it was not a living word then how is it when we pray and quote the word, God answered us with just as He did David.
What was he seeking to express?
* How terrible it is to be separated from God at the time of death. To see that death is real and that without God even in death is something words have a hard time speaking.
What was he feeling?
* The sting of death. (Oh, death were is your string) We will never feel the string of death the way He did. Not in any form of death will man feel as He felt. We know no pain or suffering the way He does and that's why He will never leave us nor forsake us because He understands and even though there will be ones that refuse and reject Him, He will still be there understanding the pain of life and death.
How did God answer his plea?
* He kept silent and why did He keep silent? Think about it! When God speaks, His words can curse or they can bless, His words speak life or death. He speaks and judgment comes and He had made Jesus the Judge. I believe John 1:1, in the beginning was the Word, the Word was with God and the Word was God. God the Father, God the Son, and God the Holy Spirit were all present at the time of sin and from that point on when Jesus said, "I will go and become a once and for all sacrifice of sin and I will conquer death for mankind", from that point on Jesus took control of mankind and has been the one to speak through out God's word and the one we see. There is only one time in the Old and the New I believe the Father spoke and these are His words " This is My Beloved Son in whom I Am well pleased"
His Father couldn't speak, He had to stay silent for the sake of mankind and letting the whole law of God be fulfill.
#16
Posted 13 November 2007 - 07:43 PM
1. Jesus took on the sins of the world and I can imagine that He was under such a heavy burden that he felt like even God had deserted Him.
2. He was tring to express how heavy the weight was on Him after being whipped, nailed to the cross for something that He didn't even do, but was fulfilling the scripture.
3. He felt like He was all alone, but He had no choice but to complete His mission.
4. God was silent. God knew that He could have no part in sin, which Jesus had obediently taken upon Himself.
#17
Posted 20 November 2007 - 02:48 PM
Because David went through some great trials and endured, but through his suffering, he, like the Messiah to come gained victory.
Jesus carried the burden of sins on the cross and by quoting Psalm 22:1, He was showing a deep expression of the anguish He felt when He took on the sins of the world, which caused Him to be separated from His Father. This was what Jesus dreaded as He prayed to in the garden of to take cup from Him. The physical agony was horrible, but even worse was the period of spiritual separation from God. Jesus suffered, this double death so that we would never have to experience eternal separation from God.
#18
Posted 22 November 2007 - 03:02 AM
#19
Posted 23 November 2007 - 11:28 PM
#20
Posted 28 November 2007 - 04:12 PM
I think Jesus spoke of the words of Psalm 22:1 because it was what He felt bearing the sins of the world and receiving the full measure of the wrath of God in punishing sin. Thus, Jesus' words fulfilled the words of prophecy in Psalm 22. He was expressing a loniness He had never experienced before.
God answered His prayer by raising Him from the dead on the third day and placing Him at the right of His throne. By elevating the name of Jesus above all names in creation and throughout the universe. He is the King of Kings and Lord of Lords. The perfect High Priest.

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