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adultery and **** are similar because **** is when you see someone in a sexual way and adultery is basically the same. if you are seeing someone (other than your spouse) in a sexual manner then you are committing adultery by ******* after that person. the difference is adultery is like cheating but when you **** but are single, you are not cheating on anyone. **** breaks the 10th commandment because you shall not covet and ******* after someone is coveting what someone else has.

pornagraphy is wrong because it is a form of cheating on your spouse (if married) by ******* after the person in the **** and that also cheapens the person in the **** because they are in essence selling their bodies for money. it is an addiction. going to prostitutes is wrong because again it is selling the prostitutes body for sex, ******* after someone that is not your wife/husband and giving your body for immoral purposes. everyone is a victim of pornagraphy. the person who is addicted is a victim, their family are victims, the persons in the **** are also victims.

the joining of a man and woman as one flesh is considered natural law so I do not believe that you must be Christian to be joined. Once you decide to be joined with a person then, according to the text, you are by natural law joined as one flesh. According to Jesus' statement all first marriages (100%) were joined by God. Kind of a strange footnote on this, I am in my second marriage. I was a non-believer throughout my life and my first husband and I divorced after a rocky 7 year marriage. My current husband is Christian and through him I have come to know Christ and accept Christ as my Lord and Savior. With that being said, his divorce was because of adultery (ex-wife cheated) so according to the Bible his divorce was considered "ok" but what about me? If I was not a believer before am I still wrong in the eyes of God and have I caused my current husband to sin because he married me? This has bothered me (not enough to leave my faith or my husband but hard just the same) and I get several different interpretations of what the bible says about this. I would love to hear the thoughts of the group. If I accepted Christ as my Lord and Savior AFTER my divorce, am I cleansed of that sin? Sorry for the rant but thanks for reading!

It doesn't seem to me that he supported either of the rabbi's. Jesus explained that only unfaithfulness in marriage allows divorce. he stated that man cannot destroy what God created therefore if man and woman become one flesh, man is not permitted to separate the union. in Deuteronomy, a man could give his wife a certificate of divorce if he does not find her pleasing anymore. This could be interpreted as something other than just unfaithfulness.

Q2. (Matthew 5:3-4) Why is it necessary to be aware of your spiritual poverty before you can become a Christian? If you feel you are spiritually high and full, you are not truly seeking the Lord's blessings because you won't feel a need for it. Only when you realize that you are lacking spiritually and you truly need to be filled, will you truly search for the Lord. What kind of mourning is necessary for a person to become a Christian? I think we need to mourn our emptiness of spirit. we need to mourn that yearning for something stronger to warm our hearts and souls and give us a purpose. What kind of mourning is a common experience of Christians? (See Isaiah 61:2-3; Ezekiel 9:4.) I think the mourning of evil done by others and the sins that humans engage in are common mournings of Christians. Christians naturally feel a sense of broken heartedness when they hear of sinful acts being committed (ie. murder, violence etc.).

Hello. I'm really hoping I understood this correctly. I am struggling with trying to grasp the bible (hence why I am in this class). Q1. (Matthew 5:3-11) Each Beatitude consists of two parts. What are these parts? the first part is the humbled, yearning spirit that is needed to receive the kingdom of God. Those who are spiritually hurting or lacking are the one's who truly seek the blessings and promises of God. the second part is the blessings received for those who are truly seeking God. I believe that Jesus was trying to show that their suffering was not in vain. Why do you think Jesus made each Beatitude a paradox? I think he made them a paradox to exhibit how those who are viewed as spiritually lower or down and struggling are not struggling in vain (as said above) and to show the positive God can bring to each negative the seeker is feeling/experiencing. What is the relationship of the Beatitudes to the Fruit of the Spirit (Galatians 5:22-23)? I think Galations "Fruit of the Spirit" is basically reiterating the same thing, that believing yourself to be full in spirit keeps you from truly seeking God and that we must all remember the blessings God promises. I hope I got the point

My name is Angela. I'm a new member. I gave my life to Christ about 2 years ago after 28 years of absolutely no religious teaching. I am now part of the praise and worship group in my church which I truly enjoy. I am very excited about this course and eager to learn more! God bless you all.