5:13b But sin is not taken into account when there is no law. This is the only part of the question that I struggle with. I agree with what others say about the rest of the ??. However, I believe that MAN did not take sin into account without the law, but God did. God did not ignore sin because there is no written law. 14a says that death reigned from the time of Adam to the time of Moses so I believe that God held man accountable for sin before the law. However, the part that confuses me is the concept of the action of one affects the many from ?1. From this concept could it be that God was punishing all mankind for the sin of Adam until the law was given.
God gave the law so man would have the commands and would thus not have the excuse that there was no command or law broken.