Eager Bver Posted December 3, 2014 Report Share Posted December 3, 2014 Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus? The Mosaic law does not command divorce. It was allowed because of the people's hardness of heart. God's intention was no divorce at all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
webster52 Posted February 17, 2015 Report Share Posted February 17, 2015 According to Jesus, does the Mosaic Law command divorce? In the text of Deuteronomy 24:1-4, Moses does not command divorce. There is only one command in that text and the command is not to marry a defiled adulterous spouse. Does it allow or regulate it? If a man wanted to divorce his wife, he couldn't just turn her out of her house. It had to be a formal and legal severing of the marriage, with financial implications as well as the ability to remarry. Without a certificate of divorce, the wife would not be able to remarry. Why does it allow divorce at all? As Jesus states: "Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not that way from the beginning" (19:8). What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus? The institution of marriage involves a covenant between a man, a woman, and God. Man and woman, by mutual consent, enter the covenant. But the procedure, in order to be valid, must be consistent with divine law. Marriage was designed and inaugurated by the Creator. Men and women do not have the right to treat this sacred human relationship in a self-directed manner. Husband and wife are to “cleave” to one another (Gen. 2:24). Jesus emphasized that what God “hath joined together” man is not to separate (Mt. 19:6), Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JoanG Posted March 12, 2015 Report Share Posted March 12, 2015 The Mosaic law allowed a husband to divorce his wife if she was unfaithful to him. He was ordered to give back her endowment and let her leave peacefully. However, it does not allow either party to remarry. God gave them this permission because of the fact that men and women could not find it in their hearts to love each other the way that God had intended for them. God intended for people to marry for life. They were to only have one spouse. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Old Jerry Posted April 28, 2015 Report Share Posted April 28, 2015 The Mosaic Law does not command divorce it lets them divorce. But in order to divorce they have to give their wife a certificate of divorce and return the dowry. The original intention for marriage was for a man to join his wife and become one. They were not to divorce. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Karen11 Posted February 17, 2018 Report Share Posted February 17, 2018 On 12/19/2007 at 10:20 PM, Pastor Ralph said: Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus? No it did not, it regulates it., Because the hardness of there hearts. For a marriage to last, for commitment. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MosesSole Posted July 19, 2020 Report Share Posted July 19, 2020 On 12/19/2007 at 10:20 PM, Pastor Ralph said: Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? Mosaic Law permitted divorce for husbands seeking to separate from their marriage but the process was more of a legal dissolution by writing out a divorce decree so as to allow the wife to regain her dowry. There doesn't seem to be a clear regulation of reason that a man may divorce his wife, which basically means that during this time, men could at will, dissolve his marriage and seek pleasures elsewhere. Divorce was allowable in the event of adultery. What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus? The intention of marriage was for the man to be able to leave his parents and join with a woman as one-- one flesh. "So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not separate." Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Irmela Posted November 3, 2020 Report Share Posted November 3, 2020 3.1 No, the Mosaic Law does not command divorce. What it did command was a legal severing of the marriage, i.e. with a certificate and financial implication and the ability to re-marry. 3.2 It allows it (but there a 'buts' to consider) 3.3 It allows divorce because of hardness of man's heart (selfishness, self-centredness and lack of communication). 3.4 It was not for divorce but marriage to be for a life-time. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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