GoRaysXD Posted August 14, 2013 Report Share Posted August 14, 2013 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the �Royal Law�? How is it more �royal� than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the �Royal Law� towards that rich person? How does it break the �Royal Law� in regard to a poor person?\ God is love. Love places the needs of others before my own. Genuine love connects me with God and those around me. Jesus said: "For God so loved the world that he gave his only begotten son that whoever believes in him should not perish but everlasting life." John 3:16. So, if God so love the world how can I as a follower of Christ not love others. When you love God and others you don't sin against them. You truly do unto others so you would want them to do unto you. You truly care. Love is not real if it is selectively given. Royal law is the King's law. That King is God and he is love. If we are to be his people we need to love. See I Cor. 13 for a definition of applied love. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Frangena Posted September 14, 2014 Report Share Posted September 14, 2014 The great commandment is the "Royal Law" because it instructs us not only to love our God but also to love our neighbors as we love ourselves. That is where it divers with the Mosaic law. Favoritism, discrimination and anything that shows signs of partiality is a sin and breaks the Royal Law. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lighthouse2014 Posted August 14, 2015 Report Share Posted August 14, 2015 Q3. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the �Royal Law�? How is it more �royal� than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the �Royal Law� towards that rich person? How does it break the �Royal Law� in regard to a poor person? James refers to the Great Command as the Royal Law, because it sums up the whole Mosaic Law. The Royal Law is more royal than the Mosaic because it is an extension of the Mosaic law. The Mosaic law tells us what not to do, the royal law says how to live among others. Showing favorites towards a rich person is sinful because we are self centered, hoping some of the riches will come our way, Showing favoritism toward the poor is sinful because we look down on them, considering ourselves better then them and forms a prejudice to them. This indeed breaks the Royal Law. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tyreek Posted April 4, 2017 Report Share Posted April 4, 2017 I believe James is referring to the Great Commandment as the “Royal Law because Jesus indicated that the law is fulfilled in one word, even in this; Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself" (Gal. 5:14). The royal law per Jesus originated in the royal courts of heaven. One aspect of the Mosaic Law was to set apart the nation of Israel as distinct from all the other nations. The Mosaic Law was given specifically to the nation of Israel while the royal law was given to the world. The excuse that the rich were trying to obey the royal law did not hold true, because they had shown disrespect to the poor man. It is all right to treat the rich with love, but not at the expense of the poor. We should love all and have contempt for none. Some men, because of envy, hate the rich. This is also a breach of the royal law. Moses wrote Lev. 19:15 (NASV), “You shall do no injustice in judgment; you shall not be partial to the poor nor defer to the great, but you are to judge your neighbor fairly.” So, part of biblical love for one’s neighbor includes treating each person fairly and impartially. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Krissi Posted May 24, 2022 Report Share Posted May 24, 2022 James is speaking to Christians who are poor. I find it interesting that he doesn't tell them to pray to have their basic needs met, that they had nothing to worry about. Perhaps they were already praying for provision. He doesn't tell them that they're supposed to go through life as sojourners without a lot of material goods. He doesn't tell them that poverty may be part of God's plan for their lives. Poverty may be difficult for many, but it's no more difficult than say, chronic pain or health problems. It's no more difficult than dashed hopes, grief, loss, and being broken hearted. It's one of many circumstantial pains that Christians deal with in life, those pains that rarely are removed from our lives by God -- our "thorns." I guess I'm surprised that James doesn't just tell them that other things more substantial in life, including one's own sins and proclivities, really should be shame-worthy, but not poverty. Theirs must have been a very materialistic, socially striated society. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanks Posted May 29, 2022 Report Share Posted May 29, 2022 Q11. (2:9-11) Why does James refer to the great commandment as the "Royal Law"? How is it more "Royal" than the Mosaic law? How does showing favouritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? It is called the Royal Law because it belongs to the King of kings and because it is the king of all laws. When comparing it to the law of Moses we note that both required us to love our neighbour, but only the Royal Law gave us the power to do it, and did not condemn us if we failed. It is only under grace, that we are given the power to love our neighbour and are rewarded when we do it. We don't do it in order to be saved but because we are saved. We do it, not through fear of punishment, but through love for our Lord Jesus who died for us and rose again. If we really loved our neighbours as ourselves, we would treat them all the way we would want to be treated. We would not want to be despised simply because we were poor, or to be shown favouritism simply because we were rich. It is because we are self-centred, that we cater to the rich because of the hope of reward, either socially or materially. At the same time, we neglect the poor because there is little prospect of their benefiting us in any way. The Royal Law forbids such selfish exploitation of others, and teaches us to love our neighbour as ourselves. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Neil NRG2 Posted May 29, 2022 Report Share Posted May 29, 2022 Why does James refer to the great commandment as the "Royal Law"? The Law Jesus (king of Kings) epitomised by His words and actions in this world. How is it more "Royal" than the Mosaic law? It encapsulates all the Mosaic laws. How does showing favouritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? Generally selfish and self-centred act, not serving others. How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? Same thing - don't show favouritism. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Irmela Posted May 30, 2022 Report Share Posted May 30, 2022 Q11. (James 2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? How is it more "royal" than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? One translation refers to it as the Law from the Highest Authority. Surely the Commandments that Moses received on the tablets of stone were from God Himself. They weren't just sucked out of Moses' thumb. So I feel that he is referring to it as the Royal Law, not because it is in anyway different than before, but because it is the same and stems from the King of kings. It needs to be obeyed, to be put into practice. All the other commandments hinge onto that one. Because of grace we are able to "love our neighbour as ourselves". If indeed we show favour to a rich person, or to a poor person if you will (anyone for that matter), then we are not treating them equally as is expected and are showing by our actions, that one is more worthy of being paid attention to , as is another. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Perry Ford Posted May 31, 2022 Report Share Posted May 31, 2022 Q11. (James 2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the “Royal Law”? How is it more “royal” than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the “Royal Law” towards that rich person? How does it break the “Royal Law” in regard to a poor person? According to Strongs Concordance (G937) the word “royal” means in Greek, regal, belonging to the sovereign or preeminent - king's, nobleman, royal. In Hebrew it is the word nadiyb which according to BDB means: inclined, noble, princely in rank, noble in character. So, from this we should see that the “royal Torah (law)” is above all, ranked the highest, coming from the highest and it is preeminent above all else. After all it came from a King! The highest King! So I think James was distinguishing the different between God's Law and Moses Law. Showing favor to the rich over the poor would violate God's law that we are created equal and all have the same value to Him. Poor people are just as important to God as rich people. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blezed Posted June 1, 2022 Report Share Posted June 1, 2022 (James 2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the “Royal Law”? How is it more “royal” than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the “Royal Law” towards that rich person? How does it break the “Royal Law” in regard to a poor person? This is one of the commandments that Jesus gave that we are to love one another as he has loved us. This was the Law that governed his life. The Mosaic Law was given by man even though it came from Jesus and was hard for people to keep and if broken would be punished. Showing favoritism toward rich breaks the "Royal Law" because we are sinning. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mampho Posted June 1, 2022 Report Share Posted June 1, 2022 On 12/17/2004 at 9:55 PM, Pastor Ralph said: Q11. (James 2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the “Royal Law”? How is it more “royal” than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the “Royal Law” towards that rich person? How does it break the “Royal Law” in regard to a poor person? Because it is the law that governed centered around all people, it is more royal because it is from the heart, it is from pure love. it is breaking the law towards that rich person because it is done for selfish gain alone, not from the love itself, it also break the royal law in regard to a poor person because the needs of the poor wont be met. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rapunzel Posted June 2, 2022 Report Share Posted June 2, 2022 I believe this is called the Royal Law because it is the foundation on which all the other laws are built. It is the law that supersedes all other laws. If we get that right, then it is easier to obey the other commands. Favouritism breaks the royal law because we show preference to one person over another. Love should not be selective based on a person's economic or social status. It shows that our love is conditional. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lisema Ralitsoele Posted June 2, 2022 Report Share Posted June 2, 2022 Q11. (James 2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? It is because it came from our King Himself, our only Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. How is it more "royal" than the Mosaic Law? The “Royal Law” is a summary of the entire Mosaic Law. How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? With respect to both the rich and the poor, the Scriptures are clear "Do not pervert justice; do not show partiality to the poor or favoritism to the great, but judge your neighbor fairly." (Leviticus 19:15). Furthermore, selectivity in observing Jesus’ commands through partiality and prejudice are evil in God’s eyes and we have to repent of all sin. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Katy Posted June 2, 2022 Report Share Posted June 2, 2022 Q.11. James called it the Royal law because Our King Jesus had condensed and capsulated the Mosaic law into the law ‘love your neighbor as yourself’. His law is based on love first to love God with all our heart, mind and soul and then our neighbour as ourselves, and this sums up all of the Mosaic Laws. When we show favouritism to anyone we are committing sin for which there will be judgement one day. If we treat a poor person differently to a wealthier person we are showing the poor person a lack of respect and re enforcing all of their negative feelings and showing them that we judge them to be less deserving of our attention. When we do this we are not being a good ambassador for Christ and may be guilty of driving them away from Christianity. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Therealizt258 Posted June 2, 2022 Report Share Posted June 2, 2022 It is royal because it is the way to fulfill the whole law its love. Showing favoritism to the rich or the poor is not showing unconditional love which is breaking the royal law. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
haar Posted June 5, 2022 Report Share Posted June 5, 2022 . (James 2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? How is it more "royal" than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? James referred to the Great Commandment as the Royal Law because it is centered on love for one another as yourself. In loving, we should thus not show favoritism towards the rich or against the poor, as doing so makes us sin and are guilty of breaking all the laws. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lisema Ralitsoele Posted June 8, 2022 Report Share Posted June 8, 2022 Q11. (James 2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law"? It is because it came from our King Himself, our only Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. How is it more "royal" than the Mosaic Law? The “Royal Law” is a summary of the entire Mosaic Law. How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the "Royal Law" towards that rich person? How does it break the "Royal Law" in regard to a poor person? With respect to both the rich and the poor, the Scriptures are clear "Do not pervert justice; do not show partiality to the poor or favoritism to the great, but judge your neighbor fairly." (Leviticus 19:15). Furthermore, selectivity in observing Jesus’ commands through partiality and prejudice are evil in God’s eyes and we have to repent of all sin. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Janzie Posted June 10, 2022 Report Share Posted June 10, 2022 On 12/17/2004 at 2:55 PM, Pastor Ralph said: Q11. (James 2:9-11) Why does James refer to the Great Commandment as the “Royal Law”? How is it more “royal” than the Mosaic Law? How does showing favoritism toward a rich person break the “Royal Law” towards that rich person? How does it break the “Royal Law” in regard to a poor person? It is the Royal because it takes in all the commandments. Loving God and loving our neighbor as ourselves. It is more royal than the Mosaic Law because when you love your neighbor as yourself, your not hurting him, killing, stealing, committing adultery, stealing his wife, or coveting his goods. It breaks the Royal Law toward the rich person because when you are showing favoritism it is sin and you are convicted by the law as lawbreakers. It breaks to Royal Law in regard to the poor person because God loves everyone. Favoritism is evil in God's sight. God's Word says, Do not pervert justice; do not show partiality to the poor or favoritism to the great, but judge your neighbor fairly. (Lev. 19:15) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Carolina Posted June 21, 2022 Report Share Posted June 21, 2022 He refers to the Great Commandment as the "Royal Law" because it encompasses the heart of all the Mosiac laws (how we treat other-not to steal, kill, be envious, lie etc..) It is more "royal" than the Mosiac law in my opinion because the Mosiac law was to lead us to do right but also points to how we sin continually. If we are walking with Christ we "treat others the way we wish to be treated" if we are trying to check off a list to make sure we are in order we follow the law-when we walk with Christ in royalty we will do these naturally, but we are human so we repent and strive to walk in holiness, If we are following the law, we check off what we have done, live in condemnation and will never meet the mark. Showing favoritism towards the rich person or poor person breaks the moral law because we are not to show favoritism-at all. I struggle with this-If its my sister in Christ, a person on the street or my family-reading this shows me how I have a long way to go to not show partiality. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Old Jerry Posted July 13, 2022 Report Share Posted July 13, 2022 James refers to the Great Commandment as the “Royal Law” because it includes all the other commandments. The “Royal Law” is the law of love and it included the Mosaic Law. If we show favoritism it is braking the “Royal Law” because we are not loving others as ourselves. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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