[Pastor Ralph]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

[Tabatha]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

The law is found in ( Deuteronomy 24:1-4 ) . In Moses day as well as in Jesus' day , the practice of marriage fell far short of God's intention. The same is true today. Jesus said that Moses gave this law only because of the people's hard hearts- permanent marriage was God's intention. But because sinful human nature made divorce inevitable. Moses instituted some laws to help the victims. These were civil laws designed especially to protect the women who, in that culture , were quite vulnerable when living alone . Because of Moses' law, a man could no longer just throw his wife out- he had to write a formal letter of dismissal. This was a sad step toward civil rights , for it made men think twice about divorce. God designed marraige to be indissoluble. Instead of looking for reasons to leave each other, married couples should concentrate on how to stay together.

Although divorce was easy in Old Testament times ( 19:7 ) , it is not what God originally intended . Couples should decide against divorce from the start and build their marriage on mutual commitment .

( 19: 4 ) " Haven't you read , " Jesus replied , " that at the beginning the Creator 'Made them male and Female, (5) and said , 'For this reason a man will leave His Father and Mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh' (6) So they are no longer two, but one. Therefore what God has joined together, let man not seperate.

(8) Jesus replied , " Moses permitted you to divorced your wives because your heart were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. (9) I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultry." ( Gen. 1;27 Gen. 2: 24 )

[Elwood C O'Dell]

The Mosaic Law does not command divorce but it did make a provision for divorce with a way to regulate what happened in the divorce. The need for such action came because of the selfish, self-centeredness, hardness of the heart, of the parties involved. God’s original intention for marriage was that it would be an enduring covenant between one man and one woman for as long as they both shall live.

[Eudora]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Moses didn't command divorce. Jesus told them it was because of the stubbornness and perversity of their hearts that Moses permitted them to dismiss and to cast off or disown their spouse ; but from the beginning it was never ordained by God to become separated from a marital union, once God had ordained it.

Does it allow or regulate it? The Mosaic law allowed divorce by it’s regulation, according to the hardness of their hearts.

Why does it allow divorce at all? Because the sin nature had evolved into a hardening of their hearts to forgive one another.

What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus? Marriage was always intended by God to be a lifetime commitment. Jesus said that unfaithfulness was an acceptable reasoning, but even that can be forgiven, through the healing of un-forgiveness which Jesus has for anyone and everyone who will call upon His name.

[charisbarak]

No, the Mosaic law did not command divorce. It was allowed because of the hardness of their hearts. God's orginal intention was that a man & a woman would marry for life.

[Cee]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

No, the Mosaic Law dose not command divorce. It was premitted because of the harden of their hearts. God's orginal intention was to stay together as one until death came to one of them.

[Stan]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

No, Moses never commanded divorce he only allowed it. He gave in to the desires of the people their hard hearts as Jesus called it. God's orginal intention was that one man and one woman be joined togeather to stay togeather as one for life. God commanded that they leave their mother's and father's and become one flesh, no longer two but one.

[s8nfighter]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

God's original intention for marriage was to be the reflection of the perfect relationship He desires with us. That perfect relationship was destroyed when sin intered, and how can a mirrored image of imperfection be any better than the image it reflects? Seek ye first the kingdom of God and all these things will be given to you.

The "law" which is imperfect allows for divorce, yes. It does not regulate it but only highlights the imperfections in our relationship with one another. The law from Deuteronomy 24 says that a divorce decree may be issued for uncleanness, (some texts say lack of favor, others say for any reason at all) but the original was "ervaw" which means: improper behaviour exposed, nakedness, or shame. Kind of sounds like how we are going to stand before the LORD on judgement day, naked and all our deeds exposed.

The reflection of the perfect relationship according to Jesus shown in marriage is the one He offers now in Luke 6: 38 If you give, you will receive. Your gift will return to you in full measure, pressed down, shaken together to make room for more, and running over. Whatever measure you use in giving – large or small – it will be used to measure what is given back to you." (He is speaking only of forgiveness in this verse, not the material things that are often eluded to in most sermons.)

I cannot imagine any marriage being happy or fruitful without the presence of the Lord or the guidence of the Holy Spirit.

Darrell

[sisterlily]

Today people have many choices and God is made known in many more places so divorce should be less and not even considered if you know God and you love eachother. Along with knowing God comes the endurance to persevere. Divorce for this world today is man centered, Jesus was fore telling of a forgiveness that can only come about from knowing Him.

[JustJeff]

The law was given by Moses simply because of hardened hearts. Man was going to do what the flesh desired so the law provided a form of protection for the woman to receive back her dowry and to remarry with someone who would truly love her.
Clear in Genesis 2:24 God intends for us to have one spouse. When something becomes one with another they should be permanently unseparable. This is what Jesus wants of us.

[UncleBlake]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

Mosaic law does not command divorce. This would be against God. Moses permitted divorce in order to accomodate the sinful nature of man because of man's sinful heart. Mosaic law regulates divorce, only for the specific purpose of the hardening of mens' hearts . God's original intention was for man and woman to be joined, be fruitful and multiply, not to tear assunder.

[Bonnie Nelson]

Q3: According to Jesus, does the Mosaic Law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it?
Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God’s original intention for marriages and divorce, according to Jesus?

The Mosaic Law does not command divorce—it allows it because of the sin nature of humans. God’s intention for marriage was to have two people—male and female—to work, communicate, and love together. They are to help each other day to day—to help each other to grow in love.

God knew that our sinful nature would not allow us to keep totally to His commandments. Not even the Israelites of those days could keep all the commandments that God set forth before them. Pride, selfishness, etc is in the heart of our soul, and it takes daily prayer to keep those negative attributes away.

[PATJOE]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

No, Moses did not command divorce. The Mosaic law allows divorce, but regulates it with Christian provisos. If either partner in a marriage (or both) become hardened of heart, where love is no longer present, this is devastating to all children issue of that marriage and corrupts the hearts of the married couple as well. This law removed the bonds of devastation and offers a second chance "to get it right with God's help". God's intention was for men and women to come together in marriage to love and respect each other and to raise children "in God's House". This was not intended to be reversible at will.

[jjj]

Because of the hardening of the heart the Mosaic Law allowed divorce it is the option not the command under certain circumstances. . It was not God's intention he brought Eve to Adam to be a companion and a help mate so that together they could share life and worship God together..

[Patricia A]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8)



Ø According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce?

Moses didn't command divorce. What he did command is that if a man wanted to divorce his wife, he couldn't just turn her out of her house. It had to be a formal and legal severing of the marriage, with financial implications as well as the ability to remarry. Without a certificate of divorce, the wife would not be able to remarry.







Ø Does it allow or regulate it?

What he did command is that if a man wanted to divorce his wife, he couldn't just turn her out of her house. It had to be a formal and legal severing of the marriage, with financial implications as well as the ability to remarry. Without a certificate of divorce, the wife would not be able to remarry.





Ø Why does it allow divorce at all?

"Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not that way from the beginning" (19:8).

In other words, Jesus says that divorce is an accommodation to the sinfulness of man's heart -- not part of God's original plan.

What kind of hardness of heart does he have in mind? Selfishness, self-centeredness, I presume. Look at marriages today. Where does the trouble arise? Often it comes from the self-centeredness of the husband -- or the self-absorption of the wife -- and their subsequent lack of communicating with each other.









Ø What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

⁸ Jesus replied, 'Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. ⁹ I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery.'" (19:7-9)

[Dar]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce?
No, it only allowed it.

Does it allow or regulate it? -- Why does it allow divorce at all?
The law of Moses allowed man to divorce his wife with the purpose, and hope, of preventing him from taking her as wife again, after she remarried another, making it an abomination unto God. Man's heart was in a hardened state at this time.

The law was to discourage divorce. Because of the hardness of mans heart, man divorced his wife for any reason, however, she could not divorce him for any reason. Legally, the wife was bound to the man for life, or, until he divorced her. Adultery carried the death penalty by stoning for the woman. None of these laws were fair and in keeping with God's purpose for mankind, nor for marriage. God created woman, taken out of the side of man, making them one, making them equal.

All this brings us to the teachings of the rabbis, Shammal, who taught adultery was the only grounds for divorce, Hillel taught, it was allowed for any reason, including bad cooking.

What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?
God's law is what we are to be governed by, it is a light before our path.
God's divine ideal for marriage, a vow taken between two people, making them one, is to be a lifelong bond. Marriage is not to be taken lightly, for it is a holy union unto God. God makes it clear, Mal.2:15 let none deal treacherously against the wife of his youth. -- This reminds me of another desire of God, for mankind to walk blameless before Him.

[Loisb]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

1. No, it didn't command divorce.

2. It allowed divorce, but you couldn't just put your wife out of the house, you had to give her a certificate of divorce, which had to be done legally.

3. Moses allowed divorce because it man stayed with his wife, it caused the heart to be hardened and started all kinds of trouble.

4. God's original intention was for man and woman to join together and become one. If one of them was unfaithful he could divorce, but if the divorce was for any other reason then he committed adultery if he remarried.

[JanMary]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

1)No, it allowed or regulated it so that women were not thown out into the street for "burning the toast", if the husband was in a cranky mood. The command was to give a certificate of divorce, and entailed him forfeiting her dowry, which would cause the husband to think twice about discarding her for another on a whim. The certificate was a protection for women, rather than a carte blanche for men. Without the certificate of divorce the woman was a nameless, abondoned reject in their society. The new wife took the husbands name.

2 & 3)It allowed it because of man's hardness of heart. It would be even more cruel to be forced to stay in a situation in which you were despised, rejected, and abused.(Leah comes to mind, where Jacob loved Rachel, and wanted no part of Leah whom he was tricked into marrying by Laban, her father, and yet she kept bearing Jacob sons, in the hope that someday he might feel affection for her. She was forced to stay in the marriage, because Jacob made no move to divorce her....she had no say in the matter, except to stay and try to live with the pain of rejection, and to keep bearing his children)

3)God's original intent was for a marriage to be a unity of body and spirit, indissoluable, between a man and a woman....a picture of our union with Him, and of our Triune God: Father, Son and Holy Spirit....ONE God.

[sahala p.s.]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

According to Jesus, Mosaic law does not command divorce. It allows divorce, not regulates it

It allows divorce at all because of our hardness of heart

According to Jesus, God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce was man is united to women and they become one flesh, and the union is longlife

[Lunga]

Q3. (Matthew 19:7-8) According to Jesus, does the Mosaic law command divorce? Does it allow or regulate it? Why does it allow divorce at all? What was God's original intention ("from the beginning") for marriage and divorce, according to Jesus?

there is no law comanding divorce.even moses said it because of their were hard.the law does not regulate it.it is only for marital unfaithfullness.what God has joined together let man not seperate.